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Free NDEB AFK practice questions with answers

Last reviewed 2026-09-27

16 free, original AFK-style practice questions — two from each of the 8 blueprint areas — each with the answer and an explanation.

The real AFK has 200 single-best-answer questions with five options, in two parts of two hours each. These samples use the same format. Try each one before opening the answer.

Pharmacology & therapeutics, local anesthesia, medical emergencies, medicine incl. physiology (24% of the AFK)

1. A healthy 20-kg child needs restorative treatment. Using a maximum recommended dose of 7 mg/kg for 2% lidocaine with 1:100,000 epinephrine, about how many 1.8-mL cartridges is the ceiling for this appointment?

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Answer: B. About 3.9

2% lidocaine is 20 mg/mL, so one 1.8-mL cartridge holds 36 mg. The ceiling is 20 kg × 7 mg/kg = 140 mg, and 140 ÷ 36 ≈ 3.9 cartridges. In practice use the least volume that achieves anesthesia. Pediatric overdose most often comes from forgetting that the cartridge count shrinks with body weight.

2. Minutes after receiving amoxicillin in the chair, a patient develops generalized urticaria, wheeze, hoarseness and a falling blood pressure. After calling for help, which drug is given first?

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Answer: B. Epinephrine 0.5 mg of 1 mg/mL solution intramuscularly

This is anaphylaxis: skin signs plus airway and circulatory compromise. Intramuscular epinephrine into the anterolateral thigh (0.01 mg/kg of 1 mg/mL, up to 0.5 mg in adults) is the first and time-critical drug, and it can be repeated every 5–15 minutes. Antihistamines and corticosteroids are adjuncts that do not reverse airway edema or hypotension. Salbutamol treats bronchospasm only.

Oral medicine / oral pathology incl. histology; oral radiology (17% of the AFK)

3. A panoramic radiograph shows a well-defined unilocular radiolucency surrounding the crown of an unerupted mandibular third molar and attached at the cemento-enamel junction. What is the most likely diagnosis?

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Answer: B. Dentigerous cyst

A pericoronal radiolucency attached at the CEJ of an unerupted tooth is the classic presentation of a dentigerous cyst. The differential includes an enlarged follicle, an odontogenic keratocyst and a unicystic ameloblastoma, so the enucleated tissue must go for histopathology. A radicular cyst sits at the apex of a non-vital tooth.

4. A 15-year-old has several odontogenic keratocysts, multiple basal cell carcinomas on the face and calcification of the falx cerebri. Which condition is most likely?

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Answer: D. Gorlin-Goltz syndrome

Multiple keratocysts at a young age should prompt a work-up for Gorlin-Goltz (nevoid basal cell carcinoma) syndrome, caused by PTCH1 mutation. Other features include basal cell carcinomas, palmar and plantar pits, bifid ribs and falx calcification. Gardner syndrome causes osteomas and supernumerary teeth. McCune-Albright causes polyostotic fibrous dysplasia with café-au-lait macules and endocrinopathy. Cowden syndrome causes multiple hamartomas, with papillomatous oral lesions.

Cariology incl. microbiology & biochemistry; restorative; prosthodontics; implants (16% of the AFK)

5. Which organisms are most associated with the progression of an established carious lesion into dentin, rather than with initiation on enamel?

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Answer: B. Lactobacilli

Mutans streptococci are strongly linked to initiating enamel caries. Lactobacilli thrive in the acidic, retentive environment of an established cavity and are associated with progression in dentin. P. gingivalis and A. actinomycetemcomitans are periodontal pathogens. Current caries ecology frames the disease as a sugar-driven shift in the whole biofilm rather than one "caries germ".

6. What is the approximate critical pH below which plaque fluid becomes undersaturated with respect to enamel hydroxyapatite?

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Answer: B. 5.5

Below about pH 5.5 the plaque fluid is undersaturated for hydroxyapatite and enamel demineralizes. Fluorapatite has a lower critical pH (about 4.5), which is one reason fluoride present during pH cycling favors remineralization. Dentin and cementum demineralize at a higher pH (about 6.2–6.7), which is why root caries progresses readily.

Orthodontics, pediatric, geriatric & special-needs dentistry incl. oral embryology, growth & development (10% of the AFK)

7. A 3-year-old avulsed a maxillary primary central incisor in a fall 20 minutes ago. The tooth was kept in milk. What is the appropriate management?

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Answer: B. Do not replant; assess the socket and monitor the successor

Avulsed primary teeth are not replanted. Replantation risks damaging the underlying permanent tooth germ and gives little benefit. Instead, check the socket and soft tissues, confirm the tooth is fully accounted for (not intruded or aspirated), give home-care advice and monitor the permanent successor. Permanent teeth, by contrast, are replanted as soon as possible.

8. After a pulpotomy on a vital, carious primary mandibular second molar with no radicular pathology, what is the restoration of choice?

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Answer: E. Preformed stainless steel crown

Pulpotomized primary molars have lost significant structure and become brittle. A stainless steel crown gives full coverage and the best long-term seal and survival until exfoliation. Coronal leakage is a leading cause of pulp-therapy failure.

Periodontics incl. microbiology & immunology (10% of the AFK)

9. In the 2017 AAP/EFP classification of periodontitis, what primarily determines the grade?

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Answer: B. The rate of progression, adjusted for smoking and diabetes

Staging (I–IV) reflects severity and complexity: CAL, radiographic bone loss, tooth loss and treatment complexity. Grading (A–C) reflects the rate of progression: direct evidence, the bone-loss/age ratio, and case phenotype. Smoking and HbA1c act as grade modifiers. Extent (localized, generalized, molar-incisor pattern) is recorded as a descriptor.

10. A patient has interdental CAL of 6 mm at the worst site, bone loss into the middle third of the root and two teeth lost to periodontitis. Which stage is this?

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Answer: C. Stage III

Interdental CAL of 5 mm or more and bone loss extending to the middle third or beyond indicate stage III or IV. Stage III allows tooth loss from periodontitis of up to 4 teeth. Stage IV applies with 5 or more teeth lost or a need for complex rehabilitation, such as masticatory dysfunction or secondary occlusal trauma. Staging and grading are assigned independently.

Oral surgery, trauma, orofacial pain, dental emergencies incl. applied anatomy (10% of the AFK)

11. A permanent maxillary central incisor is avulsed at school and cannot be replanted on site. Which readily available storage medium is most appropriate for transport?

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Answer: A. Cold milk

Replant immediately if possible. Otherwise use a physiologic medium: cold milk is widely available, and HBSS, saline or the patient’s saliva are alternatives. Water is hypotonic and lyses PDL cells. Drying is the worst option, since PDL survival falls sharply after about 30–60 minutes of dry time.

12. Minutes after an inferior alveolar nerve block, the patient cannot close the eye on that side and the corner of the mouth droops. What is the most likely cause?

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Answer: A. Anesthetic deposited too far posteriorly, into the parotid gland capsule

If the needle passes too far posteriorly, the solution can enter the parotid gland, where the facial nerve branches run. The result is transient ipsilateral facial paralysis. Reassure the patient, protect the eye (manual closure, patching and lubrication) until blinking returns, and document the event. It resolves as the anesthetic wears off.

Evidence-based dentistry, prevention, infection control, ethics & jurisprudence (7% of the AFK)

13. For a question about the effectiveness of a therapy, which source generally sits highest in the hierarchy of evidence?

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Answer: A. A systematic review of randomized controlled trials

For therapy questions, systematic reviews (with meta-analysis where appropriate) of well-designed RCTs give the most reliable estimates of effect. Individual RCTs come next, then cohort and case-control studies, case series, and expert opinion. Always also judge risk of bias, directness and consistency, for example with GRADE, not only the design label.

14. A new caries-detection device was tested on 100 lesions confirmed histologically: 45 true positives, 5 false negatives, 10 false positives and 40 true negatives. What is its specificity?

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Answer: B. 80%

Specificity = true negatives ÷ (true negatives + false positives) = 40 ÷ 50 = 80%. Sensitivity = 45 ÷ 50 = 90%. The positive predictive value is 45 ÷ 55 ≈ 82% and the negative predictive value is 40 ÷ 45 ≈ 89%. Unlike sensitivity and specificity, predictive values depend on how common the disease is.

Endodontics (6% of the AFK)

15. A mandibular molar has spontaneous night pain and sharp pain to cold that lingers more than 30 seconds after the stimulus is removed. Percussion and the periapical radiograph are normal. What is the pulpal diagnosis?

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Answer: C. Symptomatic irreversible pulpitis

Lingering pain after a thermal stimulus and spontaneous pain indicate symptomatic irreversible pulpitis, which is treated by pulpectomy (or, where appropriate, full pulpotomy) and root canal treatment. In reversible pulpitis the pain resolves within seconds and is never spontaneous. A normal periapex gives a periapical diagnosis of normal apical tissues.

16. A tooth does not respond to cold or electric pulp testing. There is an intermittently draining sinus tract, mild or no discomfort, and a periapical radiolucency. What is the full diagnosis?

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Answer: C. Pulp necrosis; chronic apical abscess

Absent responses indicate necrosis. A gradual-onset, low-discomfort infection draining through a sinus tract with apical radiolucency is a chronic apical abscess. An acute apical abscess causes rapid-onset pain and swelling. Trace the sinus tract with a gutta-percha cone on a radiograph to confirm which tooth is the source.

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Frequently asked questions

Are these real NDEB AFK questions?

No. Every PassDental question is original and written to the AFK blueprint and format. Real NDEB questions and "recalls" are confidential, and using them breaches NDEB rules.

How many questions are on the AFK?

The AFK has 200 single-best-answer questions with five options each, delivered in two parts of two hours.

What score do I need to pass the AFK?

The NDEB reports a test-equated, re-scaled score, and 75 or more is a pass. It is not a simple percentage correct, so treat practice percentages as a guide only.

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